2023 Valid DS0-001 FREE EXAM DUMPS QUESTIONS & ANSWERS
Free DS0-001 Exam Braindumps CompTIA Pratice Exam
NEW QUESTION # 28
Which of the following is the best way to migrate a large data load from one table to another, considering total time and blocking?
- A. Batch large loads into one transaction.
- B. Split the load size into many transactions.
- C. Batch into small loads and run in parallel.
- D. Split the load size in half and run simultaneously.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The best way to migrate a large data load from one table to another, considering total time and blocking, is to batch into small loads and run in parallel. This means that the large data load is divided into smaller chunks that can be processed simultaneously by multiple threads or processes. This reduces the total time required for the migration and also minimizes the blocking of other operations on the tables involved. The other options are either less efficient or more prone to blocking. For example, splitting the load size into many transactions may increase the overhead and latency of each transaction; splitting the load size in half and running simultaneously may still cause blocking or contention; batching large loads into one transaction may take longer and lock the tables for longer periods. Reference: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 3.0 Database Management and Maintenance, Objective 3.3 Given a scenario, migrate data between databases.
NEW QUESTION # 29
A company wants to deploy a new application that will distribute the workload to five different database instances. The database administrator needs to ensure that, for each copy of the database, users are able to read and write data that will be synchronized across all of the instances.
Which of the following should the administrator use to achieve this objective?
- A. Availability groups
- B. Log shipping
- C. [Peer-to-peer replication
- D. Failover clustering
Answer: C
Explanation:
The administrator should use peer-to-peer replication to achieve this objective. Peer-to-peer replication is a type of replication that allows data to be distributed across multiple database instances that are equal partners, or peers. Each peer can read and write data that will be synchronized across all peers. This provides high availability, scalability, and load balancing for the application. The other options are either not suitable for this scenario or do not support bidirectional data synchronization. For example, failover clustering provides high availability but does not distribute the workload across multiple instances; log shipping provides disaster recovery but does not allow writing data to secondary instances; availability groups provide high availability and read-only access to secondary replicas but do not support peer-to-peer replication. Reference: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 5.0 Business Continuity, Objective 5.3 Given a scenario, implement replication of database management systems.
NEW QUESTION # 30
Which of the following is an attack in which an attacker hopes to profit from locking the database software?
- A. Spear phishing
- B. On-path
- C. SQL injection
- D. Ransomware
Answer: D
Explanation:
The attack in which an attacker hopes to profit from locking the database software is ransomware. Ransomware is a type of malware that encrypts the data or files on a system or network and demands a ransom from the victim to restore them. Ransomware can target database software and lock its access or functionality until the victim pays the ransom, usually in cryptocurrency. Ransomware can cause serious damage and loss to the victim, as well as expose them to further risks or threats. Ransomware can be delivered through various methods, such as phishing emails, malicious attachments, compromised websites, etc. The other options are either different types of attacks or not related to locking database software at all. For example, spear phishing is a type of phishing attack that targets a specific individual or organization with personalized or customized emails; SQL injection is a type of attack that inserts malicious SQL statements into an input field or parameter of a web application to manipulate or compromise the underlying database; on-path is a type of attack that intercepts and modifies the data in transit between two parties on a network. Reference: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 4.0 Data and Database Security, Objective 4.4 Given a scenario, identify common types of attacks against databases
NEW QUESTION # 31
Which of the following would a database administrator monitor to gauge server health? (Choose two.)
- A. Network sniffer
- B. Domain controllers
- C. Firewall traffic
- D. Memory usage
- E. CPU usage
- F. Transaction logs
Answer: D,E
Explanation:
The two factors that the database administrator should monitor to gauge server health are CPU usage and memory usage. CPU usage is the percentage of time that the processor (CPU) of the server is busy executing instructions or processes. CPU usage indicates how much workload the server can handle and how fast it can process requests. High CPU usage may affect the performance or availability of the server and cause delays or errors. Memory usage is the amount of physical memory (RAM) or virtual memory (swap space) that the server uses to store data or run applications. Memory usage indicates how much space the server has to store temporary or intermediate data or results. High memory usage may affect the performance or availability of the server and cause swapping or paging. The other options are either not relevant or not direct indicators of server health. For example, transaction logs are files that record the changes made by transactions on the database; network sniffer is a tool that captures and analyzes network traffic; domain controllers are servers that manage user authentication and authorization in a network; firewall traffic is the amount of data that passes through a firewall device or software. Reference: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 3.0 Database Management and Maintenance, Objective 3.2 Given a scenario, monitor database performance.
NEW QUESTION # 32
An automated script is using common passwords to gain access to a remote system. Which of the following attacks is being performed?
- A. Phishing
- B. SQL injection
- C. DoS
- D. Brute-force
Answer: D
Explanation:
The attack that is being performed is brute-force. A brute-force attack is a type of attack that tries to guess a password or a key by systematically trying all possible combinations of characters or values until the correct one is found. A brute-force attack can use common passwords, such as "123456", "password", or "qwerty", as well as dictionaries, word lists, or patterns to speed up the process. A brute-force attack can target a remote system, such as a web server, an email account, or a network device, and gain unauthorized access to its data or resources. The other options are either different types of attacks or not related to password guessing. For example, a DoS, or Denial-of-Service, attack is a type of attack that floods a system with requests or traffic to overwhelm its capacity and prevent legitimate users from accessing it; an SQL injection attack is a type of attack that inserts malicious SQL statements into an input field or parameter of a web application to manipulate or compromise the underlying database; a phishing attack is a type of attack that sends fraudulent emails or messages that appear to come from a trusted source to trick users into revealing their personal or financial information. Reference: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 4.0 Data and Database Security, Objective 4.4 Given a scenario, identify common types of attacks against databases.
NEW QUESTION # 33
Which of the following computer services associates IP network addresses with text-based names in order to facilitate identification and connectivity?
- A. NTP
- B. IDNS
- C. DHCP
- D. LDAP
Answer: B
Explanation:
The computer service that associates IP network addresses with text-based names in order to facilitate identification and connectivity is IDNS. IDNS, or Internet Domain Name System (DNS), is a service that translates domain names into IP addresses and vice versa. Domain names are human-readable names that identify websites or devices on the internet, such as www.comptia.org or www.google.com. IP addresses are numerical identifiers that locate websites or devices on the internet, such as 104.18.26.46 or 142.250.72.238. IDNS helps users to access websites or devices using domain names instead of IP addresses, which are easier to remember and type. IDNS also helps administrators to manage websites or devices using domain names instead of IP addresses, which are more flexible and scalable. The other options are either different computer services or not related to IP network addresses or text-based names at all. For example, LDAP, or Lightweight Directory Access Protocol, is a service that provides access to directory information such as users, groups, or devices on a network; NTP, or Network Time Protocol, is a service that synchronizes the clocks of computers or devices on a network; DHCP, or Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol, is a service that assigns IP addresses and other network configuration parameters to computers or devices on a network. Reference: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 2.0 Database Deployment, Objective 2.1 Given a scenario, select an appropriate database deployment method.
NEW QUESTION # 34
Which of the following is a result of an on-path attack on a system?
- A. A Wi-Fi network that redirects to clones of legitimate websites
- B. A web application that returns the addresses of its customers
- C. An email from an unknown source requesting bank account details
- D. A website that has crashed and is no longer accessible
Answer: A
Explanation:
A result of an on-path attack on a system is a Wi-Fi network that redirects to clones of legitimate websites. An on-path attack is a type of attack that intercepts and modifies the traffic between two parties without their knowledge or consent. An attacker can use an on-path attack to create a rogue Wi-Fi network that mimics a legitimate one, and then redirect the users to fake websites that look like the ones they intended to visit. The attacker can then steal the users' personal or financial information, such as usernames, passwords, credit card numbers, or bank account details. The other options are either results of different types of attacks or not related to attacks at all. For example, a website that has crashed and is no longer accessible may be a result of a denial-of-service attack, an email from an unknown source requesting bank account details may be a result of a phishing attack, and a web application that returns the addresses of its customers may be a result of a poor design or a data breach. Reference: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 4.0 Data and Database Security, Objective 4.4 Given a scenario, identify common types of attacks against databases.
NEW QUESTION # 35
Which of the following is a potential issue raised by enterprise database users?
- A. The need for concurrent access and multiuser updates
- B. The need for multiple views or windows into the same database
- C. The need to manage long transactions
- D. The need to manually transfer records to paper
Answer: A
Explanation:
A potential issue raised by enterprise database users is the need for concurrent access and multiuser updates. Concurrent access means that multiple users can access the same data at the same time, while multiuser updates mean that multiple users can modify the same data at the same time. These features are essential for enterprise database users who need to share and collaborate on data in real time. However, they also pose challenges such as maintaining data consistency, preventing conflicts or errors, and ensuring transaction isolation and durability. The other options are either not issues or not specific to enterprise database users. For example, the need for multiple views or windows into the same database may be a preference or a convenience, but not an issue; the need to manage long transactions may be a challenge for any database user, not just enterprise ones; the need to manually transfer records to paper may be an outdated or inefficient practice, but not an issue. Reference: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 1.0 Database Fundamentals, Objective 1.3 Given a scenario, identify common database issues.
NEW QUESTION # 36
Which of the following is recommended in order to provide encrypted data communication pathways for information as it is transmitted over a network?
- A. TLS
- B. NFS
- C. SMB
- D. TCP/IP
Answer: A
Explanation:
The option that is recommended in order to provide encrypted data communication pathways for information as it is transmitted over a network is TLS. TLS, or Transport Layer Security, is a protocol that provides secure communication over the internet by encrypting the data using cryptographic algorithms and keys. TLS also provides authentication and integrity by verifying the identity of the parties involved and ensuring that the data has not been altered or tampered with. TLS can be used to protect various types of data, such as web traffic, email, instant messaging, voice over IP, etc. The other options are either not related or not sufficient for this purpose. For example, TCP/IP, or Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol, is a set of protocols that defines how data is transmitted and routed over the internet, but does not provide encryption or security; NFS, or Network File System, is a protocol that allows users to access and share files over a network, but does not provide encryption or security; SMB, or Server Message Block, is a protocol that allows users to access and share files, printers, and other resources over a network, but does not provide encryption or security. Reference: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 4.0 Data and Database Security, Objective 4.2 Given a scenario, implement security controls for databases.
NEW QUESTION # 37
Which of the following NFs is considered the most preferable for relational database design?
- A. 4 NF
- B. 1 NF
- C. 3 NF
- D. 2NF
Answer: C
Explanation:
The NF (normal form) that is considered the most preferable for relational database design is 3 NF. 3 NF, or Third Normal Form, is a level of normalization that organizes data into tables and columns to reduce redundancy and improve consistency. Normalization is a process that applies a set of rules or criteria to eliminate or minimize the anomalies or problems that may arise from inserting, updating, or deleting data in a database. 3 NF is achieved when a table satisfies the following conditions: - It is in 2 NF (Second Normal Form), which means that every non-key column depends on the whole primary key and not on any subset of it - It has no transitive dependencies, which means that every non-key column depends directly on the primary key and not on any other non-key column 3 NF is considered the most preferable for relational database design because it ensures that each table has only one purpose or theme and that each column has only one value or meaning. This helps avoid data duplication, inconsistency, and update anomalies. The other options are either lower or higher levels of normalization that are either less preferable or less practical for relational database design. For example, 1 NF (First Normal Form) is the lowest level of normalization that requires each column to have atomic values and each row to have a unique identifier; 4 NF (Fourth Normal Form) is a higher level of normalization that requires each table to have no multi-valued dependencies, which means that there are no columns that can have more than one value for the same primary key value; 2 NF (Second Normal Form) is an intermediate level of normalization that requires each non-key column to depend on the whole primary key and not on any subset of it. Reference: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 1.0 Database Fundamentals, Objective 1.2 Given a scenario, execute database tasks using scripting and programming languages.
NEW QUESTION # 38
Over the weekend, a company's transaction database was moved to an upgraded server. All validations performed after the migration indicated that the database was functioning as expected. However, on Monday morning, multiple users reported that the corporate reporting application was not working.
Which of the following are the most likely causes? (Choose two.)
- A. The reporting application cannot keep up with the new, faster response from the database.
- B. The database server is not permitted to fulfill requests from a reporting application.
- C. The reporting jobs that could not process during the database migration have locked the application.
- D. The new database server has its own reporting system, so the old one is not needed.
- E. The reporting application's mapping to the database location was not updated.
- F. The access permissions for the service account used by the reporting application were not changed.
Answer: E,F
Explanation:
The most likely causes of the reporting application not working are that the access permissions for the service account used by the reporting application were not changed, and that the reporting application's mapping to the database location was not updated. These two factors could prevent the reporting application from accessing the new database server. The other options are either irrelevant or unlikely to cause the problem. Reference: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 3.0 Database Management and Maintenance, Objective 3.2 Given a scenario, troubleshoot common database issues.
NEW QUESTION # 39
Which of the following concepts applies to situations that require court files to be scanned for permanent reference and original documents be stored for ten years before they can be discarded?
- A. Data loss prevention
- B. Data retention policies
- C. Global regulations
- D. Data classification
Answer: B
Explanation:
The concept that applies to situations that require court files to be scanned for permanent reference and original documents be stored for ten years before they can be discarded is data retention policies. Data retention policies are rules or guidelines that specify how long data should be kept and when it should be deleted or archived. Data retention policies are often based on legal, regulatory, or business requirements, and help organizations manage their data lifecycle, storage, and compliance. The other options are either not related or not specific to this situation. For example, data loss prevention is a process that aims to prevent data from being leaked, stolen, or corrupted; data classification is a process that assigns labels or categories to data based on its sensitivity, value, or risk; global regulations are laws or standards that apply to data across different countries or regions. Reference: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 4.0 Data and Database Security, Objective 4.1 Given a scenario, apply security principles and best practices for databases.
NEW QUESTION # 40
Which of the following can be used to protect physical database appliances from damage in a server room? (Choose two.)
- A. Biometric access systems
- B. Fire suppression systems
- C. Key card systems
- D. Camera systems
- E. Database control systems
- F. Cooling systems
Answer: B,F
Explanation:
The two options that can be used to protect physical database appliances from damage in a server room are fire suppression systems and cooling systems. Fire suppression systems are systems that detect and extinguish fires in a server room using water, gas, foam, or other agents. Fire suppression systems help prevent damage to physical database appliances caused by fire hazards such as overheating, electrical faults, or flammable materials. Cooling systems are systems that regulate the temperature and humidity in a server room using fans, air conditioners, chillers, or other devices. Cooling systems help prevent damage to physical database appliances caused by excessive heat or moisture that may affect their performance or lifespan. The other options are either not related or not effective for this purpose. For example, biometric access systems, camera systems, and key card systems are systems that control the access to a server room using fingerprints, facial recognition, video surveillance, or magnetic cards; these systems help prevent unauthorized entry or theft of physical database appliances, but not damage caused by environmental factors; database control systems are systems that manage the functionality and security of databases using software tools or commands; these systems help protect logical database appliances from errors or attacks, but not physical damage caused by environmental factors. Reference: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 5.0 Business Continuity, Objective 5.4 Given a scenario, implement disaster recovery methods.
NEW QUESTION # 41
Which of the following is part of logical database infrastructure security?
- A. Surveillance
- B. Biometric access
- C. Cooling system
- D. Perimeter network
Answer: D
Explanation:
The option that is part of logical database infrastructure security is perimeter network. Perimeter network, also known as DMZ (Demilitarized Zone), is a network segment that lies between an internal network and an external network, such as the internet. Perimeter network provides an additional layer of security for the internal network by isolating and protecting the servers or services that are exposed to the external network, such as web servers, email servers, database servers, etc. Perimeter network also helps prevent unauthorized access or attacks from the external network to the internal network by using firewalls, routers, proxies, etc. The other options are either part of physical database infrastructure security or not related to database infrastructure security at all. For example, surveillance is a method of monitoring and recording physical activities or events in a location or resource; biometric access is a device that uses biological characteristics to control access to a physical location or resource; cooling system is a device or system that regulates the temperature and humidity of a location or resource. Reference: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 4.0 Data and Database Security, Objective 4.1 Given a scenario, implement database infrastructure security.
NEW QUESTION # 42
Which of the following NoSQL database types best categorizes MongoDB?
- A. Graph
- B. Column-oriented
- C. Document
- D. Key-value stores
Answer: C
Explanation:
The NoSQL database type that best categorizes MongoDB is document. Document databases are databases that store and manage data as documents, which are collections of fields and values in formats such as JSON (JavaScript Object Notation) or XML (Extensible Markup Language). Document databases do not use any schema or structure to organize data, but rather use identifiers or indexes to enable flexible and dynamic access to data based on fields or values. Document databases are suitable for storing large amounts of complex or unstructured data that have variable attributes or nested structures. MongoDB is an example of a document database that uses JSON-like documents to store and query data. The other options are either different types of NoSQL databases or not related to NoSQL databases at all. For example, column-oriented databases are databases that store and manage data as columns rather than rows; graph databases are databases that store and manage data as nodes and edges that represent entities and relationships; key-value stores are databases that store and manage data as pairs of keys and values. Reference: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 1.0 Database Fundamentals, Objective 1.1 Given a scenario, identify common database types.
NEW QUESTION # 43
A database administrator is concerned about transactions in case the system fails. Which of the following properties addresses this concern?
- A. Isolation
- B. Atomicity
- C. Consistency
- D. Durability
Answer: D
Explanation:
The property that addresses this concern is durability. Durability is one of the four properties (ACID) that ensure reliable transactions in a database system. Durability means that once a transaction has been committed, its effects are permanent and will not be lost in case of system failure, power outage, crash, etc. Durability can be achieved by using techniques such as write-ahead logging, checkpoints, backup and recovery, etc. The other options are either not related or not specific to this concern. For example, isolation means that concurrent transactions do not interfere with each other and produce consistent results; atomicity means that a transaction is either executed as a whole or not at all; consistency means that a transaction preserves the validity and integrity of the data. Reference: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 1.0 Database Fundamentals, Objective 1.3 Given a scenario, identify common database issues.
NEW QUESTION # 44
Which of the following statements contains an error?
- A. Select* from employee where EmpId=90030
- B. Select EmpId where EmpId=90030 and DeptId=34
- C. Select EmpId from employee
- D. Select EmpId from employee where EmpId=90030
Answer: B
Explanation:
The statement that contains an error is option B. This statement is missing the FROM clause, which specifies the table or tables from which to retrieve data. The FROM clause is a mandatory clause in a SELECT statement, unless the statement uses a subquery or a set operator. The correct syntax for option B would be:
SELECT EmpId FROM employee WHERE EmpId=90030 AND DeptId=34
Copy
The other options are either correct or valid SQL statements. For example, option A selects the employee ID from the employee table where the employee ID is equal to 90030; option C selects all columns from the employee table where the employee ID is equal to 90030; option D selects the employee ID from the employee table without any filter condition. Reference: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 1.0 Database Fundamentals, Objective 1.2 Given a scenario, execute database tasks using scripting and programming languages.
NEW QUESTION # 45
Which of the following tools is used for natively running a Linux system in Windows?
- A. WSL
- B. ITelnet
- C. [Remote Desktop Protocol
- D. SSH
Answer: A
Explanation:
The tool that is used for natively running a Linux system in Windows is WSL. WSL, or Windows Subsystem for Linux, is a feature that allows users to run a Linux system natively on Windows 10 or Windows Server. WSL enables users to install and use various Linux distributions, such as Ubuntu, Debian, Fedora, etc., and run Linux commands, tools, applications, etc., without requiring a virtual machine or a dual-boot setup. WSL also provides users with interoperability and integration between Linux and Windows, such as file system access, network communication, process management, etc. WSL is useful for users who want to use Linux features or functionalities on Windows, such as development, testing, scripting, etc. The other options are either different tools or not related to running a Linux system in Windows at all. For example, Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) is a protocol that allows users to remotely access and control another computer or device over a network; SSH, or Secure Shell, is a protocol that allows users to securely connect and communicate with another computer or device over a network; Telnet is a protocol that allows users to interact with another computer or device over a network using a text-based interface. Reference: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 2.0 Database Deployment, Objective 2.2 Given a scenario, create database objects using scripting and programming languages.
NEW QUESTION # 46
Which of the following is used to write SQL queries in various programming languages?
- A. Object-relational mapping
- B. Normalization
- C. Indexing
- D. Excel
Answer: A
Explanation:
The option that is used to write SQL queries in various programming languages is object-relational mapping. Object-relational mapping (ORM) is a technique that maps objects in an object-oriented programming language (such as Java, Python, C#, etc.) to tables in a relational database (such as Oracle, MySQL, SQL Server, etc.). ORM allows users to write SQL queries in their preferred programming language without having to deal with the differences or complexities between the two paradigms. ORM also provides users with various benefits such as code reuse, abstraction, validation, etc. The other options are either not related or not effective for this purpose. For example, indexing is a technique that creates data structures that store the values of one or more columns of a table in a sorted order to speed up queries; Excel is a software application that allows users to organize and manipulate data in rows and columns; normalization is a process that organizes data into tables and columns to reduce redundancy and improve consistency. Reference: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 1.0 Database Fundamentals, Objective 1.2 Given a scenario, execute database tasks using scripting and programming languages.
NEW QUESTION # 47
A database administrator needs to provide access to data from two different tables to multiple group users in order to facilitate ongoing reporting. However, some columns in each table are restricted, and users should not be able to see the values in these columns.
Which of the following is the best action for the administrator to take?
- A. Create a stored procedure.
- B. Create a view.
- C. Create a trigger.
- D. Create a csv export.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The best action for the administrator to take is to create a view. A view is a virtual table that shows a subset of data from one or more tables. The administrator can use a view to provide access to data from two different tables to multiple group users without exposing the restricted columns. The view can also simplify the queries and improve the performance of the reporting process. The other options are either not suitable for this scenario or do not address the requirement of hiding some columns from users. For example, creating a stored procedure would require additional coding and execution, creating a csv export would create a static file that may not reflect the latest data changes, and creating a trigger would perform an action in response to an event rather than provide access to data. Reference: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 2.0 Database Deployment, Objective 2.2 Given a scenario, create database objects using scripting and programming languages.
NEW QUESTION # 48
Which of the following is the deployment phase in which a DBA ensures the most recent patches are applied to the new database?
- A. Modifying
- B. Provisioning
- C. Upgrading
- D. Importing
Answer: C
Explanation:
The deployment phase in which a DBA ensures the most recent patches are applied to the new database is upgrading. Upgrading is a process that updates an existing database system or software to a newer version or release that may include new features, enhancements, bug fixes, security patches, etc. Upgrading helps improve the performance, functionality, compatibility, and security of the database system or software. Upgrading can be done manually or automatically using tools or scripts provided by the vendor or developer. Upgrading can also involve testing, backup, migration, or rollback procedures to ensure the quality and reliability of the new version or release. The other options are either different deployment phases or not related to deployment at all. For example, importing is a process that transfers data from one source to another using files or formats; provisioning is a process that allocates resources such as servers, storage, network, etc., for a system or software; modifying is a process that changes existing data or objects in a database using commands or scripts. Reference: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 2.0 Database Deployment, Objective 2.3 Given a scenario, update database systems.
NEW QUESTION # 49
A database's daily backup failed. Previous backups were completed successfully. Which of the following should the database administrator examine first to troubleshoot the issue?
- A. Disk space
- B. Event log
- C. OS performance
- D. CPU usage
Answer: B
Explanation:
The first thing that the database administrator should examine to troubleshoot the issue is the event log. The event log is a file that records the events and activities that occur on a system, such as database backups, errors, warnings, or failures. By examining the event log, the administrator can identify the cause and time of the backup failure, and also check for any other issues or anomalies that may affect the backup process or the backup quality. The other options are either not relevant or not the first priority for this task. For example, CPU usage, disk space, and OS performance may affect the performance or availability of the system, but not necessarily cause the backup failure; moreover, these factors can be checked after reviewing the event log for more information. Reference: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 5.0 Business Continuity, Objective 5.2 Given a scenario, implement backup and restoration of database management systems.
NEW QUESTION # 50
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