BCS CISMP-V9 Exam Dumps [2021] Practice Valid Exam Dumps Question [Q22-Q43]

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BCS CISMP-V9 Exam Dumps [2021] Practice Valid Exam Dumps Question

CISMP-V9 Dumps - Grab Out For [NEW-2021] BCS Exam

NEW QUESTION 22
Which of the following international standards deals with the retention of records?

  • A. ISO/IEC 27002.
  • B. IS015489.
  • C. PCI DSS.
  • D. RFC1918.

Answer: B

 

NEW QUESTION 23
Which of the following is often the final stage in the information management lifecycle?

  • A. Use.
  • B. Creation.
  • C. Disposal.
  • D. Publication.
    https://timg.co.nz/blog-the-information-management-life-cycle/

Answer: C

 

NEW QUESTION 24
Which of the following cloud delivery models is NOT intrinsically "trusted" in terms of security by clients using the service?

  • A. Public.
  • B. Hybrid.
  • C. Private.
  • D. Community

Answer: D

 

NEW QUESTION 25
Which standard deals with the implementation of business continuity?

  • A. IS0223G1.
  • B. BS5750.
  • C. ISO/IEC 27001
  • D. COBIT

Answer: C

 

NEW QUESTION 26
In business continuity (BC) terms, what is the name of the individual responsible for recording all pertinent information associated with a BC exercise or real plan invocation?

  • A. Desk secretary.
  • B. Scrum Master.
  • C. Recorder.
  • D. Scribe.

Answer: C

 

NEW QUESTION 27
Which of the following statements relating to digital signatures is TRUE?

  • A. Digital signatures are legal unless there is a statutory requirement that predates the digital age.
  • B. Digital signatures are valid and enforceable in law in most countries in the world.
  • C. Digital signatures are rarely legally enforceable even if the signers know they are signing a legal document.
  • D. A digital signature that uses a signer's private key is illegal.

Answer: A

 

NEW QUESTION 28
Which of the following is MOST LIKELY to be described as a consequential loss?

  • A. Service disruption.
  • B. Reputation damage.
  • C. Monetary theft.
  • D. Processing errors.

Answer: B

 

NEW QUESTION 29
What does a penetration test do that a Vulnerability Scan does NOT?

  • A. A penetration test never uses common tools such as Nrnap, Nessus and Metasploit.
  • B. A penetration test looks for known vulnerabilities and reports them without further action.
  • C. A penetration test is always an automated process - a vulnerability scan never is.
  • D. A penetration test seeks to actively exploit any known or discovered vulnerabilities.

Answer: B

 

NEW QUESTION 30
Which of the following is a framework and methodology for Enterprise Security Architecture and Service Management?

  • A. SABSA
  • B. TOGAF
  • C. PCI DSS.
  • D. OWASP.

Answer: A

 

NEW QUESTION 31
One traditional use of a SIEM appliance is to monitor for exceptions received via syslog.
What system from the following does NOT natively support syslog events?

  • A. Linux Web Server Appliances.
  • B. Windows Desktop Systems.
  • C. Enterprise Stateful Firewall.
  • D. Enterprise Wireless Access Point.

Answer: A

 

NEW QUESTION 32
A system administrator has created the following "array" as an access control for an organisation.
Developers: create files, update files.
Reviewers: upload files, update files.
Administrators: upload files, delete fifes, update files.
What type of access-control has just been created?

  • A. Mandatory access control.
  • B. Rule based access control.
  • C. Role based access control.
  • D. Task based access control.

Answer: B

 

NEW QUESTION 33
What Is the PRIMARY security concern associated with the practice known as Bring Your Own Device (BYOD) that might affect a large organisation?

  • A. Privately owned end user devices are not provided with the same volume nor frequency of security patch updates as a corporation.
  • B. The organisation has significantly less control over the device than over a corporately provided and managed device.
  • C. Under GDPR it is illegal for an individual to use a personal device when handling personal information under corporate control.
  • D. Most BYOD involves the use of non-Windows hardware which is intrinsically insecure and open to abuse.

Answer: D

 

NEW QUESTION 34
Which of the following subjects is UNLIKELY to form part of a cloud service provision laaS contract?

  • A. Intellectual Property Rights.
  • B. Liability
  • C. End-of-service.
  • D. User security education.

Answer: B

 

NEW QUESTION 35
Which of the following acronyms covers the real-time analysis of security alerts generated by applications and network hardware?

  • A. DDoS.
    https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Security_information_and_event_management
  • B. CERT
  • C. SIEM.
  • D. CISM.

Answer: C

 

NEW QUESTION 36
What Is the PRIMARY reason for organisations obtaining outsourced managed security services?

  • A. Managed security services permit organisations to absolve themselves of responsibility for security.
  • B. Managed security services are a de facto requirement for certification to core security standards such as ISG/IEC 27001
  • C. Managed security services provide access to specialist security tools and expertise on a shared, cost-effective basis.
  • D. Managed security services are a powerful defence against litigation in the event of a security breach or incident

Answer: A

 

NEW QUESTION 37
When calculating the risk associated with a vulnerability being exploited, how is this risk calculated?

  • A. Risk = Likelihood / Impact.
  • B. Risk = Likelihood * Impact.
  • C. Risk = Threat * Likelihood.
  • D. Risk = Vulnerability / Threat.

Answer: D

 

NEW QUESTION 38
In software engineering, what does 'Security by Design" mean?

  • A. All code meets the technical requirements of GDPR.
    https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Secure_by_design#:~:text=Secure%20by%20design%20(SBD)%2C,the%20foundation%20to%20be%20secure.&text=Malicious%20practices%20are%20taken%20for,or%20on%20invalid%20user%20input.
  • B. The software has been designed from its inception to be secure.
  • C. All security software artefacts are subject to a code-checking regime.
  • D. Low Level and High Level Security Designs are restricted in distribution.

Answer: B

 

NEW QUESTION 39
When an organisation decides to operate on the public cloud, what does it lose?

  • A. Control over Intellectual Property Rights relating to its applications.
  • B. The right to audit and monitor access to its information.
  • C. Physical access to the servers hosting its information.
  • D. The ability to determine in which geographies the information is stored.

Answer: B

 

NEW QUESTION 40
In order to maintain the currency of risk countermeasures, how often SHOULD an organisation review these risks?

  • A. A maximum of once every other month.
  • B. When the next risk audit is due.
  • C. Risks remain under constant review.
  • D. Once defined, they do not need reviewing.

Answer: C

 

NEW QUESTION 41
Which standards framework offers a set of IT Service Management best practices to assist organisations in aligning IT service delivery with business goals - including security goals?

  • A. ITIL.
  • B. ISAGA.
    https://www.cherwell.com/it-service-management/library/essential-guides/essential-guide-to-itil-framework-and-processes/
  • C. SABSA.
  • D. COBIT

Answer: A

 

NEW QUESTION 42
Which of the following describes a qualitative risk assessment approach?

  • A. A subjective assessment of risk occurrence likelihood against the potential impact that determines the overall severity of a risk.
  • B. The use of Monte-Carlo Analysis and Layers of Protection Analysis (LOPA) to determine the overall severity of a risk.
  • C. The use of Risk Tolerance and Risk Appetite values to determine the overall severity of a risk
  • D. The use of verifiable data to predict the risk occurrence likelihood and the potential impact so as to determine the overall severity of a risk.

Answer: B

 

NEW QUESTION 43
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