ISACA CRISC Practice Test Pdf Exam Material
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NEW QUESTION 240
Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of periodically reviewing an organization's risk profile?
- A. Enable risk-based decision making
- B. Design and implement risk response action plans
- C. Align business objectives with risk appetite
- D. Update risk responses in the risk register
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Volume D
NEW QUESTION 241
Which of the following is the PRIMARY objective for automating controls?
- A. Improving control process efficiency
- B. Complying with functional requirements
- C. Reducing the need for audit reviews
- D. Facilitating continuous control monitoring
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 242
Which of the following is the BEST indication that an organization is following a mature risk management process?
- A. A dashboard has been developed for senior management to provide real-time risk values.
- B. Executive management receives periodic risk awareness training.
- C. The risk register is frequently utilized for decision-making.
- D. Attributes of each risk scenario have been documented within the risk register.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Section: Volume D
Explanation/Reference:
NEW QUESTION 243
Which of the following approaches BEST identifies information systems control deficiencies?
- A. Best practice assessment
- B. Countermeasures analysis
- C. Gap analysis
- D. Risk assessment
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 244
Which of the following key risk indicators (KRIs) is MOST effective for monitoring risk related to a bring your own device (BYOD) program?
- A. Number of incidents originating from BYOD devices
- B. Number of devices enrolled in the BYOD program
- C. Number of users who have signed a BYOD acceptable use policy
- D. Budget allocated to the BYOD program security controls
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 245
An organization moved its payroll system to a Software as a Service (SaaS) application. A new data privacy regulation stipulates that data can only be processed within the country where it is collected. Which of the following should be done FIRST when addressing this situation?
- A. Analyze data protection methods.
- B. Implement strong access controls.
- C. Include a right-to-audit clause.
- D. Understand data flows.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Volume D
NEW QUESTION 246
Which of the following is the BEST approach to mitigate the risk associated with a control deficiency?
- A. Perform a business case analysis
- B. Implement compensating controls.
- C. Conduct a control sell-assessment (CSA)
- D. Build a provision for risk
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 247
Fred is the project manager of a large project in his organization. Fred needs to begin planning the risk management plan with the project team and key stakeholders. Which plan risk management process tool and technique should Fred use to plan risk management?
- A. Planning meetings and analysis
- B. Information gathering techniques
- C. Data gathering and representation techniques
- D. Variance and trend analysis
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
There is only one tool and technique available for Fred to plan risk management: planning meetings and analysis. Planning Meeting and Analysis is a tool and technique in the Plan Risk Management process.
Planning meetings are organized by the project teams to develop the risk management plan. Attendees at these meetings include the following:
Project manager
Selected project team members
Stakeholders
Anybody in the organization with the task to manage risk planning
Sophisticated plans for conducting the risk management activities are defined in these meetings, responsibilities related to risk management are assigned, and risk contingency reserve application approaches are established and reviewed.
Incorrect Answers:
A, B, D: These are not plan risk management tools and techniques.
NEW QUESTION 248
When establishing an enterprise IT risk management program, it is MOST important to:
- A. understand the organization's information security policy.
- B. review alignment with the organization's strategy.
- C. report identified IT risk scenarios to senior management.
- D. validate the organization's data classification scheme.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Volume D
NEW QUESTION 249
Which of the following processes addresses the risks by their priorities, schedules the project management plan as required, and inserts resources and activities into the budget?
- A. Plan risk response
- B. Monitor and Control Risk
- C. Explanation:
The plan risk response project management process aims to reduce the threats to the project objectives and to increase opportunities. It follows the perform qualitative risk analysis process and perform quantitative risk analysis process. Plan risk response process includes the risk response owner to take the job for each agreed-to and funded risk response. This process addresses the risks by their priorities, schedules the project management plan as required, and inserts resources and activities into the budget. The inputs to the plan risk response process are as follows: Risk register Risk management plan
Answer C
is incorrect. Identify Risks is the process of determining which risks may affect the project. It also documents risks' characteristics. The Identify Risks process is part of the Project Risk Management knowledge area. As new risks may evolve or become known as the project progresses through its life cycle, Identify Risks is an iterative process. The process should involve the project team so that they can develop and maintain a sense of ownership and responsibility for the risks and associated risk response actions. Risk Register is the only output of this process. - D. Qualitative Risk Analysis
- E. Identify Risks
Answer: A
Explanation:
A is incorrect. Monitor and Control Risk is the process of implementing risk response plans, tracking identified risks, monitoring residual risk, identifying new risks, and evaluating risk process effectiveness throughout the project. It can involve choosing alternative strategies, executing a contingency or fallback plan, taking corrective action, and modifying the project management plan. Answer: D is incorrect. Qualitative analysis is the definition of risk factors in terms of high/medium/low or a numeric scale (1 to 10). Hence it determines the nature of risk on a relative scale. Some of the qualitative methods of risk analysis are: Scenario analysis- This is a forward-looking process that can reflect risk for a given point in time. Risk Control Self -assessment (RCSA) - RCSA is used by enterprises (like banks) for the identification and evaluation of operational risk exposure. It is a logical first step and assumes that business owners and managers are closest to the issues and have the most expertise as to the source of the risk. RCSA is a constructive process in compelling business owners to contemplate, and then explain, the issues at hand with the added benefit of increasing their accountability.
NEW QUESTION 250
Which of the following is the BEST way to mitigate the risk associated with fraudulent use of an enterprise's brand on Internet sites?
- A. Developing training and awareness campaigns
- B. Utilizing data loss prevention technology
- C. Monitoring the enterprise's use of the Internet
- D. Scanning the Internet to search for unauthorized usage
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Volume D
NEW QUESTION 251
Which of the following is the MAIN purpose of monitoring risk?
- A. Communication
- B. Risk analysis
- C. Decision support
- D. Benchmarking
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 252
Kelly is the project manager of the NNQ Project for her company. This project will last for one year and has a budget of $350,000. Kelly is working with her project team and subject matter experts to begin the risk response planning process. What are the two inputs that Kelly would need to begin the plan risk response process?
- A. Risk register and the risk response plan
- B. Explanation:
The only two inputs for the risk response planning are the risk register and the risk management plan. The plan risk response project management process aims to reduce the threats to the project objectives and to increase opportunities. It follows the perform qualitative risk analysis process and perform quantitative risk analysis process. Plan risk response process includes the risk response owner to take the job for each agreed-to and funded risk response. This process addresses the risks by their priorities, schedules the project management plan as required, and inserts resources and activities into the budget. The inputs to the plan risk response process are as follows: Risk register Risk management plan - C. Risk register and power to assign risk responses
- D. Risk register and the results of risk analysis
- E. Risk register and the risk management plan
Answer: B,E
Explanation:
is incorrect. Kelly will not need the risk response plan until monitoring and controlling the project. Answer:C is incorrect. The results of risk analysis will help Kelly prioritize the risks, but this information will be recorded in the risk register. Answer:D is incorrect. Kelly needs the risk register and the risk management plan as the input. The power to assign risk responses is not necessarily needed by Kelly.
NEW QUESTION 253
A WiFi access points on the enterprise network. Which of the following would be MOST important to include in a report to senior management?
- A. The network security policy
- B. The WiFi access point configuration
- C. Planned remediation actions
- D. Potential business impact
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION 254
You are the risk official of your enterprise. You have just completed risk analysis process. You noticed that the risk level associated with your project is less than risk tolerance level of your enterprise. Which of following is the MOST likely action you should take?
- A. Explanation:
When the risk level is less than risk tolerance level of the enterprise than no action is taken against
that, because the cost of mitigation will increase over its benefits. - B. Prioritize risk response options
- C. Apply risk response
- D. Update risk register
- E. is incorrect. Risk register is updates after applying response, and as no response is
applied to such low risk level; hence no updating is done. - F. No action
- G. is incorrect. This is not valid answer, as no response is being applied to such low risk
level.
Answer: F
Explanation:
is incorrect. This is not valid answer, as no response is being applied to such low risk
level.
NEW QUESTION 255
Which of the following BEST ensures that a firewall is configured in compliance with an enterprise's security policy?
- A. Review the actual procedures.
- B. Review the parameter settings.
- C. Review the device's log file for recent attacks.
- D. Interview the firewall administrator.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Volume A
Explanation:
A review of the parameter settings will provide a good basis for comparison of the actual configuration to the security policy and will provide reliable audit evidence documentation.
Incorrect Answers:
A: While interviewing the firewall administrator may provide a good process overview, it does not reliably confirm that the firewall configuration complies with the enterprise's security policy.
B: While procedures may provide a good understanding of how the firewall is supposed to be managed, they do not reliably confirm that the firewall configuration complies with the enterprise's security policy.
C: While reviewing the device's log file for recent attacks may provide indirect evidence about the fact that logging is enabled, it does not reliably confirm that the firewall configuration complies with the enterprise's security policy.
NEW QUESTION 256
Which of the following is MOST important for maintaining the effectiveness of an IT risk register?
- A. Communicating the register to key stakeholders
- B. Removing entries from the register after the risk has been treated
- C. Performing regular reviews and updates to the register
- D. Recording and tracking the status of risk response plans within the register
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 257
You are working in an enterprise. You enterprise is willing to accept a certain amount of risk. What is this risk called?
- A. Tolerance
- B. Aversion
- C. Appetite
- D. Hedging
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Risk appetite considers the qualitative and quantitative aspects of accepting risks in an organization. The term refers to the type of risks the organization is willing to pursue, as well as amount of risk and the level of risk.
Risk appetite is the amount of risk a company or other entity is willing to accept in pursuit of its mission.
This is the responsibility of the board to decide risk appetite of an enterprise. When considering the risk appetite levels for the enterprise, the following two major factors should be taken into account:
The enterprise's objective capacity to absorb loss, e.g., financial loss, reputation damage, etc.
The culture towards risk taking-cautious or aggressive. In other words, the amount of loss the
enterprise wants to accept in pursue of its objective fulfillment.
Incorrect Answers:
A, B: Aversion and hedging are related to each other and represents the avoidance of risk within the organization.
D: The acceptable variation relative to the achievement of an objective is termed as risk tolerance. In other words, risk tolerance is the acceptable deviation from the level set by the risk appetite and business objectives.
Risk tolerance is defined at the enterprise level by the board and clearly communicated to all stakeholders.
A process should be in place to review and approve any exceptions to such standards.
NEW QUESTION 258
You have been assigned as the Project Manager for a new project that involves building of a new roadway between the city airport to a designated point within the city. However, you notice that the transportation permit issuing authority is taking longer than the planned time to issue the permit to begin construction. What would you classify this as?
- A. Risk Update
- B. Project Risk
- C. Project Issue
- D. Status Update
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Volume D
Explanation:
This is a project issue. It is easy to confuse this as a project risk; however, a project risk is always in the future.
In this case, the delay by the permitting agency has already happened; hence this is a project issue. The possible impact of this delay on the project cost, schedule, or performance can be classified as a project risk.
Incorrect Answers:
A: It is easy to confuse this as a project risk; however, a project risk is always in the future. In this case, the delay by the permitting agency has already happened; hence this is a project issue.
B, C: These are options are not valid.
NEW QUESTION 259
Which of the following would MOST likely result in updates to an IT risk appetite statement?
- A. Feedback from focus groups
- B. External audit findings
- C. Changes in senior management
- D. Self-assessment reports
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 260
Which of the following BEST facilitates the development of effective IT risk scenarios?
- A. Integration of contingency planning
- B. Utilization of a cross-functional team
- C. Validation by senior management
- D. Participation by IT subject matter experts
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 261
A risk heat map is MOST commonly used as part of an IT risk analysis to facilitate risk:
- A. identification
- B. communication
- C. treatment
- D. assessment
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Volume D
NEW QUESTION 262
Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when sharing risk management updates with executive management?
- A. Relying on key risk indicator (KRI) data Including
- B. Using an aggregated view of organizational risk
- C. Ensuring relevance to organizational goals
- D. Trend analysis of risk metrics
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION 263
You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. You are involved with the project team on the different risk issues in your project. You are using the applications of IRGC model to facilitate the understanding and managing the rising of the overall risks that have impacts on the economy and society. One of your team members wants to know that what the need to use the IRGC is. What will be your reply?
- A. IRGC addresses the development of resilience and the capacity of organizations and people to face unavoidable risks.
- B. IRGC is both a concept and a tool.
- C. IRGC addresses understanding of the secondary impacts of a risk.
- D. IRGC models aim at building robust, integrative inter-disciplinary governance models for emerging and existing risks.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Volume C
Explanation:
IRGC is aimed at building robust, integrative inter-disciplinary governance models for emerging and existing risks.
The International Risk Governance Council (IRGC) is a self-governing organization whose principle is to facilitate the understanding and managing the rising overall risks that have impacts on the economy and society, human health and safety, the environment at large. IRGC's effort is to build and develop concepts of risk governance, predict main risk issues and present risk governance policy recommendations for the chief decision makers. IRGC mainly emphasizes on rising, universal risks for which governance deficits exist. Its goal is to present recommendations for how policy makers can correct them. IRGC models at constructing strong, integrative inter-disciplinary governance models for up-coming and existing risks.
Incorrect Answers:
B: As IRGC is aimed at building robust, integrative inter-disciplinary governance models for emerging and existing risks, so it is the best answer for this question.
C, D: Risk governance addresses understanding of the secondary impacts of a risk, the development of resilience and the capacity of organizations and people to face unavoidable risks.
NEW QUESTION 264
Natural disaster is BEST associated to which of the following types of risk?
- A. Discontinuous
- B. Explanation:
Natural disaster can be a long-term or short-term and can have large or small impact on the
company. However, as the natural disasters are unpredictable and infrequent, they are best
considered as discontinuous. - C. Large impact
- D. is incorrect. Natural disaster can be a long-term, but it is not the best answer.
- E. is incorrect. Natural disaster can be a short-term, but it is not the best answer.
- F. Short-term
- G. Long-term
Answer: A
Explanation:
is incorrect. Natural disaster can be of large impact depending upon its nature, but it is
not the best answer.
NEW QUESTION 265
......
Certification Path
The Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control Certification includes only one CRISC exams.
Main Requirements
To earn the ISACA CRISC certification, the applicants are required to pass a single test. Additionally, they must meet the experience-level eligibility requirement. This is at least three years of practical experience in the field of IT risk management and IS control. The experience level is an integral part of the exam prerequisites, and there is no waiver or substitution for it.
How to book the CRISC Exam
These are following steps for registering the CRISC exam. Step 1: Pass the CISA examination within the last five years Step 1: Pass the CRISC examination within the last five years Step 2: Candidate has a minimum of five years in CRISC job practice area Step3: Apply for CRISC certification with $50 USD processing fee
For more detail visit this link Apply for certification
CRISC [Sep-2022] Newly Released] Exam Questions For You To Pass: https://www.test4cram.com/CRISC_real-exam-dumps.html
ISACA CRISC Exam: Basic Questions With Answers: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1GMrkZQxjGTDQSHZ_31Sl0jFaj_eik_hm